rainbowsenpaicat420 rainbowsenpaicat420

10-11-2017
Mathematics

contestada

Is 16% of 40 the same as 40% of 16? Explain your reasoning.

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indiaaa10 indiaaa10

10-11-2017

yes because 16% of 40 is 6.4 and 40% of 16 is 6.4

hope this helped

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savagegurlll7 savagegurlll7

20-12-2018

Answer:

Yes because 16 percent of 40 is 6.4 40 percent of 16 is 6.4

Step-by-step explanation:

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